• SCHOLARSHIP

    he Norwegian government provides scholarships for students from developing countries in the South and countries of Central- and East-Europe and Central-Asia under the Quota Scheme. The goal of the Quota Scheme is to promote the internationalization of higher education and give developing country students relevant education that would also benefit their home countries when they return after graduation..

  • Education

    It´s time for another post with inspirational quotes. This time I´d like to focus on something I find very useful: education. School may have been – or still be – boring, a killer of creativity or downright awful for you. But education is still important because it opens the mind and expands it. And if your years in school were bad or boring you can still educate yourself now. Anyways, here’s some wisdom and inspiration from the people who have walked before us. It is impossible for a man to learn what he thinks he already knows ...

  • Exam.

    Exam Quotes On Taking The Initiative “Recipe for success: Study while others are sleeping; work while others are loafing; prepare while others are playing; and dream while others are wishing.” ~ William A. Ward.

Showing posts with label Exam Paper. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Exam Paper. Show all posts

Friday, April 26, 2013

CLASS 10th MODEL QUESTIONS PAPER FOR JHARKHAND

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Tuesday, January 22, 2013

CHEMISTRY SAMPLE PAPER - II CLASS - XII


CHEMISTRY SAMPLE PAPER - II
CLASS - XII

Time : Three Hours

General Instructions
1.
All questions are compulsory.
2.
Question nos. 1 to 8 are very short answer questions and carry one mark each.
3.
Question nos. 9 to 18 are short answer questions and carry two marks each.
4.
Question nos. 19 to 27 are also short answer questions and carry three marks each.
5.
Question nos. 28 to 30 are long answer questions and carry five marks each.
6.
Use log tables if necessary. Calculators are not allowed.

Give IUPAC name of the following organic compound

1.

Max. Marks : 70

What are the physical states of dispersed phase and dispersion medium of froth?

2.

3.

Write the balanced equation for complete hydrolysis of XeF6

Write the structure of :
4 - methyl pent - 3 - en - 2 - one

4.

1

1

1

1

A compound contains two types of atoms - X and Y. It crytallises in a cubic lattice with atom X at the corners of the
unit cell and atomsY at the body centres. What is the simplest possible formula of this compound?
1

5.

6.

What is the Van’t Hoff factor for a compound which undergoes tetramerization in an organic solvent?

An ore sample of galena (PbS) is contaminated with zinc blende (ZnS). Name one chemical which can be used to
concentrate galena selectively by froth floatation method.
1

7.

1

8.

Predict the shape of CIF3 on the basis of VSEPR theory.

Ethylene glycol (molar mass = 62 g mol¯ 1) is a common automobile antifreeze. Calculate the freezing point of a
solution containing 12.4g of this substance in 100 g of water. Would it be advisable to keep this substance in the car
radiator during summer?
Given : Kf for water = 1.86K kg/mol
Kb for water = 0.512K kg/mol
2

9.

1

k
Consider the reaction A → P. The change in concentration of A with time is shown in the following plot:

10.

(18)

(i) Predict the order of the reaction.
(ii) Derive the expression for the time required for the completion of the reaction.

Free energies of formation

11.

of MgO(s) and CO(g) at 1273 K and 2273K are given below

(MgO(s)) = - 941 kJ/mol at 1273K

(MgO(s)) = - 314 kJ/mol at 2273K

(CO(g))

= - 439 kJ/mol at 1273K

(CO(g)) = - 628 kJ/mol at 2273K
On the basis of above data, predict the temperature at which carbon can be used as a reducing agent
for MgO(s).
2

Name the two components of starch. How do they differ from each other structurally?

12.

(a) What changes occur in the nature of egg proteins on boiling?
(b) Name the type of bonding which stabilizes α -helix structure in proteins.

13.

2

2

14.

Describe the mechanism of the formation of diethyl ether from ethanol in the presence of concentrated sulphuric
acid.
2

15.

Complete and name the following reactions:

2

16.

Give chemical tests to distinguish between compounds in each of the following pairs:
(i) Phenol and Benzyl alcohol
(ii) Butane-2 -ol and 2 Methyl propan - 2- ol

Predict, giving reasons, the order of basicity of the following compounds in (i) gaseous phase and (ii) in aqueous

17.

solutions

OR
Account for the following:
(a) Aniline does not undergo Friedel Crafts alkylation
(b) Although - NH2 group is an ortho and para-directing group, nitration of aniline gives alongwith ortho & para-
derivatives meta-derivative also.

Give reasons for the following :
(a) At higher altitudes, people suffer from a disease called anoxia. In this disease, they become weak and cannot
think clearly.
(b) When mercuric iodide is added to an aqueous solution of KI, the freezing point is raised.
2

18.

2

2

An element X with an atomic mass of 60g/mol has density of 6.23g cm-3. If the edge length of its cubic unit cell is
400 pm, identify the type of cubic unit cell. Calculate the radius of an atom of this element.
3

19.

(19)

20.

Write names of monomer/s of the following polymers and classify them as addition or condensation polymers.
(a) Teflon
(b) Bakelite
(c) Natural Rubber
3

(a) Give the IUPAC name of :
[Cr Cl2 (H2O)4] Cl
(b) Give the number of unpaired electrons in the following complex ions:

21.

(c) Name the isomerism exhibited by the following pair of coordination compounds:

Give one chemical test to distinguish between these two compounds.

22.

Explain the following observations:
(a) Ferric hydroxide sol gets coagulated on addition of sodium chloride solution
(b) Cottrell’s smoke precipitator is fitted at the mouth of the chimney used in factories.
(c) Physical adsorption is multilayered, while chemisorption is monolayered.

Account for the following:
(a) Chlorine water has both oxidizing and bleaching properties.
(b) H3PO2 and H3PO3 act as as good reducing agents while H3PO4 does not.
(c) On addition of ozone gas to KI solution, violet vapours are obtained.

23.

The decomposition of N2O5(g) is a first order reaction with a rate constant of 5 x 10-4 sec-1 at 45o C. i.e. 2N2O5 (g)
4NO2 (g) + O2 (g). If initial concentration of N2O5 is 0.25M, calculate its concentration after 2 min. Also
calculate half life for decomposition of N2O5 (g).

24.

(b) For an elementary reaction

the rate of appearance of C at time ‘t’ is 1.3 x 10-4 mol l-1 s-1.
Calculate at this time
(i) rate of the reaction.
(ii) Rate of disappearance of A.

(a) Which of the following two compounds would react faster by SN2 path way : 1 - bromobutane or
2 - bromobutane and why.?
(b) Allyl chloride is more reactive than n - propyl chloride towards nucleophilic substitution reaction. Explain why?
(c) Haloalkanes react with KCN to give alkyl cyanide as main product while with AgCN they form isocyanide as
main product. Give reason.

25.
Give reasons for the following:
(a) CN¯ ion is known but CP¯ ion is not known.
(b) NO2 demerises to form N2O4
(c) ICl is more reactive than I2

Posted By: http://educationexampoint.blogspot.in



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Monday, January 21, 2013

Interview General Questions,


1.

At the conclusion of the Earth Summit of 1992, the following were
accomplished:
a. Agenda 21 was signed
b. An international agreement to reduce CO 2 outputs was signed
c. The Earth Charter was developed
d. All of the above

In 1992, at the Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro, which two countries announced
that they would resume whale hunting?
a. India and Bangladesh
b. Iceland and Norway
c. USA and Canada
d. Egypt and Israel

2.

3.

The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change was opened for signature at
the Rio Earth Summit. Name the
landmark protocol that was adopted 5 years later, which required industrialized nations to
collectively reduce their greenhouse gas emissions 5% below their 1990 levels.
a. Kyoto Protocol
b. Vienna Convention
c. Basel Convention
d. Agenda 21

In recent years, the environment has become a major issue all over the world
and various steps have been taken for its protection. The United Nations held
its first international conference on Human Environment on 5 June 1972 in this city.
Since then, the World Environment Day is also celebrated on this day. Name the city.
a. Berlin
b. Stockholm
c. Washington
d. Vienna

4.

5.

Its primary objective is the conservation and management of diversity among
plants, animals, birds, etc. It also provides opportunities for the protection of
indigenous knowledge practices and innovations related to the natural
environment. This is known as the
a. Convention on Biological Diversity
b. Montreal Protocol
c. Framework Convention on Climate Change
d. Kyoto Protocol

6.

What is Agenda 21?
a. A list of 21 actions that people can take to save the planet
b. A challenge to the government and local communities to prepare for the 21st
century
c. The 21st of 27 agendas produced at the Rio Earth Summit in 1992
of
the
above
d. None

7.

Agenda 21, a United Nations document, does not use which of the following as
one of its important themes:
a. The clean world—managing chemicals and waste
b. The shared world—managing global and regional resources
c. The equalized world—using force to take resources from rich countries
d. The just world—promoting sustainable living everywhere

8.

According to the Agenda, this group has the foremost responsibility for bringing
about changes in the environment.
a. Communities
b. National governments
c. Local governments
d. Individuals

9.

The problems of pollution are growing. Maximum pollution can be seen and felt
in the
a. Countryside
b. Mountains
c. Grasslands
d. Cities

10. Which group of countries has made the largest contribution to environmental
degradation
and
pollution
in
the
last
century?
a. Developing countries
b. Developed countries
c. Third World countries
d. a and c

11. Nature endows all creatures with certain abilities to help them adapt to their surroundings.
Sea mammals possess an insulating layer of fat that protects them from the cold. Name this
layer.
a. Thermofat
b. Blubber
c. Thermocol
d. Sea foam

12. This 140-MW ISCC (Integrated Solar Combined Cycle) power plant with a solar thermal
power generation technology will be India’s first and among the world’s largest. The solar
thermal component is based on the parabolic trough collector technology. The combined
cycle power plant of 105 MW capacity with supplementary firing during non-sunny hours will
be run on naphtha / natural gas. In which state is it being set up?
a. Gujarat
b. Rajasthan
c. Bengal
d. Madhya Pradesh

13. Some organisms in the ocean use this greenhouse gas for photosynthesis and shell-
formation, thereby preventing it from contributing to global warming. Name the gas.
a. Nitrous oxide
b. Sulphur dioxide
c. Carbon dioxide

d. Oxygen

14. Volcanoes emit large volumes of pollutants into the air. The largest volcano on Earth rises to
a height of 56 000 feet from its base in the sea. Among Earth’s most active volcanoes, its the
most recent eruption was in 1984. Name this volcano.
a. Krakatoa
b. Vesuvius
c. Azores
d. Mauna Loa

15. In the animal kingdom, a variety of relationships exist among creatures. What type of
relationship is seen between the lion and the zebra?
a. Host/parasite
b. Mutualism
c. Predator/prey
d. Parasitism

16. Indian coal generally has a high ash content and low calorific value. Therefore, most coking
coal must be imported. Major Indian coalfields are found in Bihar, West Bengal, and Madhya
Pradesh. Along with China and the United States, India ranks as the ______ largest coal
producer in the world.
a. First
b. Second
c. Third
d. Fourth

17. This method of farming reduces soil erosion in hilly regions. It also creates hundreds of small
dams, slows down water flow, and increases infiltration, which reduces erosion and promotes
better water quality. What is this beneficial method known as?
a. Contour farming
b. Multiple cropping
c. Crop rotation
d. Jhum cultivation

18. The People’s Republic of China is the world’s most populous country and the second largest
energy consumer (after the United States). It is also the world’s largest producer and
consumer of one of the following fuels. Name the fuel.
a. Petroleum
b. Natural gas
c. Biomass
d. Coal

19. India was the first country to insert an amendment into its Constitution, allowing the State to
protect and improve the environment for safeguarding public health, forests, and wildlife. In
which year, was this 42nd amendment adopted?
a. 1975
b. 1976
c. 1977
d. 1978

20. Water engineers often say, ‘The solution to pollution is dilution’. This is true to some extent in
the case of River Yamuna. By the time it flows through Delhi, it is considered highly polluted

but on the way to Allahabad, it is joined by another tributary and gets diluted, thereby bringing
down the pollution level. Name this tributary.
a. Chambal
b. Beas
c. Sutlej
d. Kopili
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Thursday, May 10, 2012

SBI Clerical Examination,Clerk Recruitmen 2012 May 2012

SBI Clerical Examination 2012
Clerk Recruitment Exam 2012

SBI Clerical Examination,Clerk Recruitmen 2012 May 2012,Question Paper, Model Paper, Exam Paper May 2012, Bank Question,

Quantitative Aptitude

Directions—(Q. 1–6) What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions ?

1. 196 × 948 ÷ 158 = ?

(A) 1156
(B) 1200
(C) 1188
(D) 1176
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

2. (786 × 64) ÷ 48 = ?
(A) 1050
(B) 1024
(C) 1048
(D) 1036
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

3. 3·5 + 11·25 × 4·5 – 32·5 = ?
(A) 18·275
(B) 21·625
(C) 32·375
(D) 25·45
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

4. (2640 ÷ 48) × (2240 ÷ 35) = ?
(A) 3520
(B) 3515
(C) 3495
(D) 3490
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

5. 7414 + 3698 + 1257 + 1869 = ?
(A) 14328
(B) 14438
(C) 13428
(D) 13248
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

6. (98360 + 25845 – 36540) ÷ 2500 = ?
(A) 36·585
(B) 30·082
(C) 32·085
(D) 35·066
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 7–11) What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series ?

7. 1, 9, 25, 49, ?, 169
(A) 100
(B) 64
(C) 81
(D) 121
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

8. 3, 23, 43, ?, 83, 103
(A) 33
(B) 53
(C) 63
(D) 73
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

9. 748, 737, 715, 682, 638, ?
(A) 594
(B) 572
(C) 581
(D) 563
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

10. 121, 117, 108, 92, 67, ?
(A) 31
(B) 29
(C) 41
(D) 37
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

11. 50, 26, 14, ?, 5, 3·5
(A) 6
(B) 8
(C) 10
(D) 12
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

12. The ratio of ducks and frogs in a pond is 37 : 39 respectively. The average number of ducks and frogs in the pond is 152. What is the number of frogs in the pond ?
(A) 148
(B) 152
(C) 156
(D) 144
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

13. The number of employees in Companies A, B and C are in a rtio of 4 : 5 : 6 respectively. If the number of employees in the three Companies is increased by 25%, 30% and 50% respectively, what will be the new ratio of employees working in Companies A, B and C respectively ?
(A) 13 : 10 : 18
(B) 10 : 13 : 17
(C) 13 : 15 : 18
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

14. The average of five positive numbers is 213. The average of the first two numbers is 233·5 and the average of last two numbers is 271. What is the third number ?
(A) 64
(B) 56
(C) 106
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

15. Sonali invests 15% of her monthly salary in insurance policies. She spends 55% of her monthly salary in shopping and on household expenses. She saves the remaining amount of Rs. 12,750. What is Sonali’s monthly income ?
(A) Rs. 42,500
(B) Rs. 38,800
(C) Rs. 40,000
(D) Rs. 35,500
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

16. In how many different ways can the letters of the word ‘ARISE’ be arranged ?
(A) 90
(B) 60
(C) 180
(D) 120
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

17. What approximate amount of compound interest can be obtaied on an amount of Rs. 9650 at the rate of 6 p.c.p.a. at the end of 3 years ?
(A) Rs. 1737
(B) Rs. 1920
(C) Rs. 1720
(D) Rs. 1860
(E) Rs. 1843
Ans : (E)

18. A milkman sells 120 litres of milk for Rs. 3360 and he sells 240 litres of milk for Rs. 6120. How much concession does the trader give per litre of milk, when he sells 240 litres of milk ?
(A) Rs. 2
(B) Rs. 3·5
(C) Rs. 2·5
(D) Rs. 1·5
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

19. When 3626 is divided by the square of a number and the answer so obtained is multiplied by 32, the final answer obtained is 2368. What is the number ?
(A) 7
(B) 36
(C) 49
(D) 6
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

20. The sum of the two digits of a two digit number is 14. The difference between the first digit and the second digit of the two digit number is 2. What is the product of the two digits of the two digit number ?
(A) 56
(B) 48
(C) 45
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

21. A car runs at the speed of 50 kms per hour when not serviced and runs at 60 kms/hr. when serviced. After servicing the car covers a certain distance in 6 hours. How much time will the car take to cover the same distance when not serviced ?
(A) 8·2 hours
(B) 6·5 hours
(C) 8 hours
(D) 7·2 hours
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 22–24) What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions ?
(You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)

22. (4863 + 1174 + 2829) ÷ 756 = ?
(A) 18
(B) 16
(C) 12
(D) 9
(E) 22
Ans : (C)

23. 37·35 + 13·064 × 3·46 = ?
(A) 89
(B) 83
(C) 76
(D) 79
(E) 85
Ans : (B)

24. 54 × 746 ÷ 32 = ?
(A) 1259
(B) 1268
(C) 1196
(D) 1248
(E) 1236
Ans : (A)
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